"where the Constituiton is prejudical to United States Citizens"
My problem with taking the intentions of the original framers is..
I don't think they even included women in their interpretation. Although they didn't say women couldn't vote, I believe that how the framers governed under the constitution to be how they interpreted the Constitution.
So I had no equal rights to elect my government, I wasn't equal under the laws of the country at that time. So why would I think that their interpretation would include non US Citizens when as they practiced it didn't consider me an equal?